āĻŦāĻŋāώāϝāĻŧāĻ đ WBHRB āϏā§āĻāĻžāĻĢ āύāĻžāϰā§āϏ CBT āĻā§āϏā§āĻ â 15 ( Medical-Surgical Nursing )
đ§Ž āĻā§āĻāĻ: đ WBHRB āϏā§āĻāĻžāĻĢ āύāĻžāϰā§āϏ CBT āĻā§āϏā§āĻ â 15 ( Medical-Surgical Nursing )
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âą āϏāĻŽāϝāĻŧāϏā§āĻŽāĻž: 60 Minute
â āύā§āĻā§āĻāĻŋāĻ : -0.5 āĻĒā§āϰāϤāĻŋ āĻĒā§āϰāĻļā§āύā§
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Time over
đ WBHRB āϏā§āĻāĻžāĻĢ āύāĻžāϰā§āϏ CBT āĻā§āϏā§āĻ â 15 ( Medical-Surgical Nursing )
1 / 50
1. A patient with upper GI bleeding has hypotension and tachycardia. Priority nursing intervention?
Rapid fluid resuscitation stabilizes hemodynamics and prevents shock.
2 / 50
2. Which lab confirms myocardial injury?
Troponin elevation indicates myocardial necrosis.
3 / 50
3. Which intervention is priority in adrenal crisis?
Immediate IV hydrocortisone and fluid resuscitation.
4 / 50
4. A patient with hypovolemic shock shows tachycardia, hypotension, and weak pulses. Priority?
Rapid fluid resuscitation restores circulating volume.
5 / 50
5. A patient post-thyroidectomy develops tetany and laryngeal stridor. Most likely cause?
Accidental removal of parathyroid glands causes hypocalcemia.
6 / 50
6. A patient with septic shock requires fluid resuscitation. Preferred fluid?
Isotonic crystalloids are first-line therapy.
7 / 50
7. A patient with COPD exacerbation has PaCO2 70 mmHg and confusion. Nursing action?
Controlled oxygen therapy to prevent CO2 narcosis.
8 / 50
8. Which lab indicates iron-deficiency anemia?
Low hemoglobin, low ferritin, and microcytic hypochromic RBCs.
9 / 50
9. A patient with STEMI develops hypotension and cool, clammy skin. Priority intervention?
Cardiogenic shock requires immediate fluid management and inotropes.
10 / 50
10. Which electrolyte imbalance occurs in refeeding syndrome?
Rapid feeding causes hypophosphatemia, hypokalemia, and hypomagnesemia.
11 / 50
11. Which medication reduces mortality in chronic heart failure?
ACE inhibitors prevent remodeling and improve survival.
12 / 50
12. Which symptom indicates early sepsis?
Fever, tachycardia, and mild hypotension are early signs.
13 / 50
13. Which electrolyte is critical in hypoparathyroidism?
Hypocalcemia due to low PTH secretion.
14 / 50
14. Which lab confirms acute hemolytic transfusion reaction?
Hemolysis markers: elevated bilirubin, hemoglobinuria, and LDH.
15 / 50
15. A patient with chronic liver disease develops confusion and asterixis. Nursing priority?
Hepatic encephalopathy; administer lactulose and monitor ammonia.
16 / 50
16. A patient with massive PE is hypotensive and hypoxic. Immediate action?
Oxygen and preparation for thrombolysis or embolectomy.
17 / 50
17. Which electrolyte imbalance is common in massive tissue injury?
Hyperkalemia occurs due to cell lysis.
18 / 50
18. A patient with acute MI and ST elevation should receive which drug immediately?
Antiplatelet therapy (aspirin) prevents clot progression.
19 / 50
19. A patient with pancreatitis shows Cullenâs sign. Nursing implication?
Periumbilical ecchymosis indicates retroperitoneal hemorrhage.
20 / 50
20. A post-MI patient develops sudden ventricular fibrillation. Nursing priority?
Immediate defibrillation is life-saving.
21 / 50
21. Which intervention prevents ventilator-associated pneumonia?
Elevating head of bed and oral care reduce VAP risk.
22 / 50
22. Which lab indicates hemolytic anemia?
Elevated LDH, indirect bilirubin, and reticulocytosis.
23 / 50
23. A patient with stroke develops right-sided hemiplegia and slurred speech. Nursing priority?
Assess airway, circulation, and prevent further neurological damage.
24 / 50
24. A patient with DIC shows petechiae and prolonged PT/PTT. Nursing implication?
Supportive care and treat underlying cause; monitor for bleeding.
25 / 50
25. Which early symptom indicates hypoxia?
Restlessness and anxiety occur before cyanosis.
26 / 50
26. A patient with acute adrenal crisis shows hypotension, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia. Nursing priority?
IV hydrocortisone and fluid replacement to prevent shock.
27 / 50
27. A patient with hyperthyroidism develops fever, tachycardia, and delirium. Most likely complication?
Thyroid storm is a life-threatening endocrine emergency.
28 / 50
28. A patient with pheochromocytoma has severe hypertension and headache. Nursing priority?
Administer alpha-blockers and prepare for surgical removal.
29 / 50
29. A patient with ARDS is on mechanical ventilation. Nursing priority?
Maintain oxygenation and prevent ventilator-associated complications.
30 / 50
30. Which lab confirms diabetic ketoacidosis?
High glucose, ketones in blood/urine, and metabolic acidosis.
31 / 50
31. A patient with acute pancreatitis develops hypotension and tachycardia. Priority intervention?
Aggressive fluid resuscitation prevents shock.
32 / 50
32. Which electrolyte imbalance occurs in tumor lysis syndrome?
Rapid cell breakdown leads to hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hypocalcemia.
33 / 50
33. A patient with pulmonary embolism has sudden dyspnea, chest pain, and hemoptysis. Initial nursing action?
Assess airway, oxygenation, and prepare for anticoagulation therapy.
34 / 50
34. Which lab indicates risk of rhabdomyolysis?
Elevated creatine kinase (CK) reflects muscle breakdown.
35 / 50
35. Which complication occurs after massive transfusion?
Hypocalcemia and coagulopathy due to citrate and dilutional effect.
36 / 50
36. A patient in septic shock is hypotensive despite fluids. Next step?
Administer vasopressors after fluid resuscitation.
37 / 50
37. A patient post-op develops sudden tachypnea, hypotension, and hypoxia. Likely complication?
Pulmonary embolism requires oxygen and anticoagulation.
38 / 50
38. A patient with GI bleed is restless and diaphoretic. Nursing implication?
Early hypovolemic shock; monitor vitals and prepare fluids.
39 / 50
39. Which ECG change is characteristic of hyperkalemia?
Peaked T waves and widened QRS complexes.
40 / 50
40. Which lab value is critical in septic shock?
Lactate elevation indicates tissue hypoperfusion.
41 / 50
41. A patient with tension pneumothorax has tracheal deviation and hypotension. Immediate nursing action?
Needle decompression relieves pressure before definitive chest tube.
42 / 50
42. Which lab confirms DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation)?
Elevated D-dimer, prolonged PT/PTT, and low platelets confirm DIC.
43 / 50
43. A patient with ARDS on PEEP develops hypotension. Nursing implication?
Positive pressure reduces venous return causing hypotension; monitor hemodynamics.
44 / 50
44. A post-op patient develops sudden abdominal distension, absent bowel sounds, and vomiting. Likely complication?
Postoperative ileus or bowel obstruction requires NG decompression.
45 / 50
45. Which sign indicates hypovolemic shock in GI bleeding?
Tachycardia, hypotension, cool clammy skin are early signs.
46 / 50
46. A patient with sepsis has hypotension despite fluids. Next step?
Start vasopressors to maintain perfusion.
47 / 50
47. Which sign is earliest in cardiac tamponade?
Tachycardia and hypotension precede muffled heart sounds.
48 / 50
48. Which medication reduces ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy?
Lactulose acidifies colon and traps ammonia for excretion.
49 / 50
49. A patient with hypertensive crisis has headache, blurred vision, and BP 220/130. Nursing priority?
Gradual BP reduction with IV antihypertensives to prevent organ damage.
50 / 50
50. Which is a hallmark symptom of cardiac tamponade?
Beckâs triad: hypotension, muffled heart sounds, JVD.
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